Multivariable calculus

Limit of arctan(1/(x^2+y^2)) at the Origin

The limit of arctan(1 / (x^2 + y^2)) as (x, y) approaches the origin is pi/2, about 1.5708. Every approach sends x^2 + y^2 to 0 from above, so 1/(x^2 + y^2) grows without bound, and the arctangent of a quantity running to plus infinity tends to pi/2.

f(x,y)=arctan(1x2+y2)f(x,y) = \arctan\left(\frac{1}{x^2 + y^2}\right)

The limit exists

lim(x,y)(0,0)arctan(1x2+y2)=π2\lim_{(x,y) \to (0,0)} \arctan\left(\frac{1}{x^2 + y^2}\right) = \frac{\pi}{2}
PathLimit along it
along y = 01.5707963267948966
along y = x1.5707963267948966
along y = 3x1.5707963267948966

The paths climb toward the same ceiling

Along a line through the origin x2+y2x^2+y^2 is a constant times t2t^2, so the quantity inside the arctangent grows like a constant over t2t^2.

f(t,0)=arctan(1t2)π2f(t,0) = \arctan\left(\frac{1}{t^2}\right) \to \frac{\pi}{2}
f(t,t)=arctan(12t2)π2f(t,t) = \arctan\left(\frac{1}{2t^2}\right) \to \frac{\pi}{2}
f(t,3t)=arctan(110t2)π2f(t,3t) = \arctan\left(\frac{1}{10t^2}\right) \to \frac{\pi}{2}

The values rise toward π2\frac{\pi}{2} and never reach it, because arctan\arctan is strictly below π2\frac{\pi}{2} at every real input. A limit does not have to be attained, and often is not.

An inside limit and an outside limit

Let u=x2+y2u = x^2 + y^2. Away from the origin u>0u > 0, and u0+u \to 0^+ exactly when (x,y)(0,0)(x,y) \to (0,0), so the inner expression 1u\frac{1}{u} runs to ++\infty.

lim(x,y)(0,0)arctan(1x2+y2)=limv+arctanv=π2\lim_{(x,y) \to (0,0)} \arctan\left(\frac{1}{x^2+y^2}\right) = \lim_{v \to +\infty} \arctan v = \frac{\pi}{2}

The composition step is legitimate because arctan\arctan is continuous on the whole real line and has the horizontal asymptote π2\frac{\pi}{2} as its argument grows. Whatever route the point takes, the inner quantity ends up large and positive, and the outer function converts large and positive into something near π2\frac{\pi}{2}.

In polar coordinates f=arctan(1r2)f = \arctan\left(\frac{1}{r^2}\right), with no θ\theta at all. The function is constant on every circle around the origin, so direction cannot possibly matter and the path tests were never going to disagree.

The mistake: taking the inside limit and stopping

A common slip is to compute lim(x2+y2)=0\lim\left(x^2+y^2\right) = 0, write arctan(10)\arctan\left(\frac{1}{0}\right), and then either declare the limit undefined or write arctan()\arctan(\infty) without saying what that means. 10\frac{1}{0} is not a number. The honest statement is one sided: u0+u \to 0^+ forces 1u+\frac{1}{u} \to +\infty, and that is what pins the answer to π2\frac{\pi}{2}.

The one sided part carries the whole argument. Replace the inside by x2y2x^2 - y^2 and the quantity approaches 00 from both sides: 1x2y2\frac{1}{x^2-y^2} runs to ++\infty along y=0y = 0 and to -\infty along x=0x = 0.

limt0arctan(1t2)=π2,limt0arctan(1t2)=π2\lim_{t \to 0} \arctan\left(\frac{1}{t^2}\right) = \frac{\pi}{2}, \qquad \lim_{t \to 0} \arctan\left(\frac{-1}{t^2}\right) = -\frac{\pi}{2}

Two paths, two different values, so that variant has no limit. The difference between the two problems is nothing more than a sign in the denominator, which is why the sign is worth stating out loud.

Frequently asked questions

Is the limit exactly pi/2?

Exactly π2\frac{\pi}{2}, which is about 1.57081.5708. The function never equals π2\frac{\pi}{2} anywhere, since arctan\arctan is strictly less than π2\frac{\pi}{2} at every real input, but the values get and stay arbitrarily close as the point nears the origin. That is all a limit asks for.

Can the function be made continuous at the origin?

Yes. Define f(0,0)=π2f(0,0) = \frac{\pi}{2}. The limit exists and equals that value, so the extended function is continuous at the origin, and it was already continuous everywhere else because x2+y20x^2+y^2 \ne 0 off the origin.