Multivariable calculus
Second Partial Derivatives of sin(x)cos(y)
For f(x,y) = sin(x)cos(y) the second partials are f_xx = -sin(x)cos(y), f_yy = -sin(x)cos(y), and the mixed partial f_xy = -cos(x)sin(y). Both pure second partials equal -f, so the Laplacian is -2f. This is a separated product, which means no product rule is ever needed in the computation.
Second and mixed partials
A separated product makes this easy
The function is a product of a function of alone and a function of alone. When you differentiate in , the whole factor is a constant multiplier, so no product rule appears at any stage.
Differentiating each factor twice returns the original with a sign flip, since sine and cosine each satisfy .
The mixed partial takes one derivative from each factor, turning into and into .
Clairaut symmetry and the Laplacian
Reversing the order differentiates in , which gives . The two orders agree, exactly as Clairaut's theorem promises for a product of smooth one variable functions.
Adding the pure second partials gives a clean relation. Functions with this property are eigenfunctions of the Laplacian, and they are the building blocks of separation of variables for the wave and heat equations.
The Hessian determinant follows quickly. Using and , you get , which is negative wherever the twist beats the curvature.
The mistake students make
Sign bookkeeping is the whole difficulty. Differentiating once gives and twice gives , so picks up its minus from the factor while picks up its minus from the factor. Both land at , which surprises students who expect the two to differ.
The second slip is inventing a product rule that is not needed. Applying one to the product while differentiating in gives , which treats as if it varied with . It does not, since a partial derivative in holds fixed, so the first partial is just and the second is .
Test at , : there , , , and . Since and , that point is a local maximum, which matches the picture of a peak on the surface.
Frequently asked questions
Why do f_xx and f_yy come out equal here?
Each factor satisfies , so differentiating twice in either variable returns the original function with a minus sign. Both pure second partials therefore equal .
Is sin(x)cos(y) harmonic?
No. Its Laplacian is , which is only zero where the function itself is zero. The corresponding harmonic pair uses hyperbolic functions, such as .