Multivariable calculus

Partial Derivatives of e^x ln(1 + y^2)

For f(x, y) = e^x ln(1 + y^2), the partial with respect to x is e^x ln(1 + y^2), which is the function itself, and the partial with respect to y is 2y e^x/(1 + y^2). Each variable sits in its own factor, so the other factor rides along as a constant.

exln ⁣(1+y2)e^{x}\ln\!\left(1+y^{2}\right)
exln ⁣(1+y2)e^{x}\ln\!\left(1+y^{2}\right)
2yex1+y2\frac{2y\,e^{x}}{1+y^{2}}

A separated product needs no product rule

This function has the form g(x)h(y)g(x)h(y), with g(x)=exg(x) = e^{x} and h(y)=ln(1+y2)h(y) = \ln(1+y^{2}). When xx moves, the whole factor h(y)h(y) is a constant multiplier, so you differentiate gg and leave hh alone.

fx=ln ⁣(1+y2)ddxex=exln ⁣(1+y2)\frac{\partial f}{\partial x} = \ln\!\left(1+y^{2}\right)\cdot\frac{d}{dx}e^{x} = e^{x}\ln\!\left(1+y^{2}\right)

When yy moves, exe^{x} is the constant multiplier and you differentiate the logarithm with the inside derivative 2y2y over the inside 1+y21+y^{2}.

fy=ex2y1+y2=2yex1+y2\frac{\partial f}{\partial y} = e^{x}\cdot\frac{2y}{1+y^{2}} = \frac{2y\,e^{x}}{1+y^{2}}

At (0,1)(0,1) the slopes are ln20.693\ln 2 \approx 0.693 in xx and exactly 11 in yy, since 211+1=1\frac{2\cdot 1}{1+1} = 1.

The mistake: reaching for the product rule

  • Writing fx=exln(1+y2)+ex2y1+y2\frac{\partial f}{\partial x} = e^{x}\ln(1+y^{2}) + e^{x}\cdot\frac{2y}{1+y^{2}} applies the product rule as if both factors depended on xx. The second factor does not, and its xx derivative is 00, so that extra term is pure error.
  • Writing fy=ex1+y2\frac{\partial f}{\partial y} = \frac{e^{x}}{1+y^{2}} forgets the inside derivative 2y2y.
  • Writing fy=exln(2y)\frac{\partial f}{\partial y} = e^{x}\ln(2y) mangles the logarithm rule entirely. Differentiating ln(u)\ln(u) never leaves a logarithm behind.

The line y=0y = 0 is a good test. There ln(1+y2)\ln(1+y^{2}) sits at its minimum, so the slope in yy must be 00 for every xx. The correct formula has the factor 2y2y in the numerator and gives exactly that; the version missing it does not.

The x partial is the function again

Because exe^{x} is its own derivative and xx appears nowhere else, this function satisfies fx=f\frac{\partial f}{\partial x} = f. Every horizontal line is a scaled copy of the exponential, so moving one unit in xx multiplies the height by ee, whatever yy is.

f(x+1,y)f(x,y)=efor every y0\frac{f(x+1,\,y)}{f(x,\,y)} = e \quad \text{for every } y \neq 0

The yy behaviour is different in character. The factor ln(1+y2)\ln(1+y^{2}) is zero on the xx-axis, rises in both directions, and grows only logarithmically, so the slope 2y1+y2\frac{2y}{1+y^{2}} fades back toward 00 once y|y| is large.

Frequently asked questions

Why does the x partial equal the original function?

Because x appears only inside e^x, which is its own derivative, and the factor ln(1 + y^2) is a constant during that differentiation, so it simply reappears unchanged.

Is ln(1 + y^2) ever undefined?

No. The argument 1 + y^2 is at least 1 for every real y, so the function and both partials are defined on the whole plane, with no domain restriction to state.