AP Calculus BC
Integral of ln 2x: Answer, Proof, and Steps
The integral of ln(2x) is x ln(2x) - x + C, valid for x > 0. Integration by parts with u = ln(2x) and dv = dx works because the derivative of ln(2x) is 1/x, which cancels against the x from v and leaves the integral of 1. No factor of 1/2 appears.
Parts with nothing to integrate
There is no antiderivative of to quote and no second factor to pair it with. The move is to supply one: let , so , and let be the entire integrand.
That deserves a second look. The chain rule gives , so the inside 2 cancels against itself and has the same derivative as .
Running the formula
In the from meets the from , and the new integrand is just 1.
Check by differentiating: the product rule gives .
How it relates to the integral of ln x
For , , so this answer sits a distance away from . That gap is a function of , not a constant, which is why the two integrals genuinely differ even though the integrands differ by a constant.
The mistake students make
The frequent error is dividing by 2, writing by analogy with . That division applies when the inside coefficient survives differentiation and needs cancelling. In a logarithm it cancels on its own, since , so there is nothing left to undo.
The second slip is dropping the and answering . Differentiating that gives , overshooting by exactly the 1 that the term exists to cancel.
The third is ignoring the domain. exists only for , so is an antiderivative on and nowhere else. A definite integral reaching down to 0 is improper (Topic 6.13) and has to be evaluated as a limit rather than by plugging the endpoint in. Absolute value bars do not extend it either, the way they do for : the integrand itself has no negative branch to repair.
Every answer on this page is machine checked
An automated test differentiates the antiderivative above and confirms it returns the integrand. A wrong sign or a missing factor fails the build, so it cannot reach you.
Frequently asked questions
Why is there no 1/2 out front the way there is for sin 2x?
Because , not . The inside coefficient cancels inside the chain rule itself, so the antiderivative has nothing to compensate for.
Can I rewrite the log before integrating?
Yes, and it is a clean shortcut. On the domain , , so the integral is , which factors back to .
What is the definite integral from 1 to 2?
Evaluate at both ends: , roughly .